6 ms·
Could it be as simple as those who have made the effort to get vaccinated are more keenly aware of monitoring for symptoms and are more likely to take the step
by anakaine 5y ago
Could it be as simple as those who have made the effort to get vaccinated are more keenly aware of monitoring for symptoms and are more likely to take the step of being tested to help prevent transmission where as those who remain unvaccinated are more likely to remain untested when symptomatic?
Another poster here suggested that we are seeing the mRNA vaccines causing an immune response on a particular axis and that has caused selective pressure on mutations resulting in mutations such as Omicron, which in turn manifests more symptomatically in the vaccinated.
We have some correlation, but no exploration of causation. Id suggest that twitter thread is jumping to conclusions without considering the why.
- _v7gu 5y agoYou have to regularly take tests if you aren't vaccinated, so that mechanism works in the opposite direction. We should have been seeing a higher representation in the unvaccinated even if the virus simply ignored the vaccine.
- Scandiravian 5y agoI disagree If this variant is mostly asymptomatic, but spreads rapidly, in the vaccinated population, then you would also see higher rates in the vaccinated population, given that vaccinated people only test after they are notified that they have been in contact with someone who tested positive. This gives a larger window for the virus to spread further among the vaccinated part of the population before containment.
- CodeGlitch 5y agoMy anti-vax relatives refuse to even test for covid. Now if this behaviour is multiplied across all the antivaxers, then could this be the reason for the skewed results?