3 ms·

Exactly, but we are not in the early days anymore. So how is, in today's world, v6 "10ms faster" than v4? ISPs didn't magically create v6-only exchanges that ha

• kevincox 5y ago
  It is likely that the CGNATs are slower when doing translation to IPv4 rather than just passing (with some filtering) IPv6. 10ms does seem like a lot though. Maybe a remote lookup? Or something to do with prefering IPv6 with a small delay (happy eyeballs related?)
  • Dagger2 5y ago
    They're rounding the numbers, so presumably it could be anywhere from 5ms to 15ms. Some ISPs (I'm thinking of T-Mobile, but presumably they aren't the only one) centralize their CGNAT routers, whereas v6 traffic is handed off more locally since it doesn't need to be NATed. v4 traffic may need to travel further on those ISPs.
• zamadatix 5y ago
  As a clarification the more we are not in the early days anymore the lower the IPv6 latency is expected to be so being this far along is a supporting reason not a how come. It's likely not the peering points creating the difference at this stage. Initially they created a difference in favor of v4, now they are about equal, and later they will create a difference in favor of v6. For the moment the directness of v6 to being routed out vs v4 being sent to some centralized translation entity then being routed out is the likely culprit. Particularly since these numbers are driven primarily by mobile carriers who sometimes don't even have native v4 to the end user at all.