I feel like we’ve looped. You wrote “A court order can't legally force someone to share incriminating information”. I gave an example where the court could forc

I feel like we’ve looped. You wrote “A court order can't legally force someone to share incriminating information”. I gave an example where the court could force you to share incriminating information. Did you perhaps mean that a court order can’t force someone to answer questions that may incriminate them?