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> Poor countries have benefited a lot more from industrialization over the last 50 years than wealthy countries. Wealthy countries had already industrialized.
by Biologist123 5y ago
> Poor countries have benefited a lot more from industrialization over the last 50 years than wealthy countries.
Wealthy countries had already industrialized. Poor countries were starting from a _very_ low base. They’re still a lot poorer and their contribution to historical emissions is small.
Re the metrics you present, I agree against those things are much improved. But I sometimes wonder whether those metrics are very western centric, chosen by technocrats to make themselves look good. In the context of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, I suspect people in many of these places are in a worse position than they were pre-colonialism. Particularly in terms of self-actualization. But on the other levels too.
I say this as a former technocrat.
- bko 5y agoIf you don't agree with the metric pick another objective metric that could be measured. You would be hard pressed to find a metric in which developing countries have not considerably improved since industrialization.
- Biologist123 5y ago1. Rights of access to productive assets. 2. Asset yield. 3. Leisure time.
- bko 5y ago1. Composite indicator of financial market development. Developing countries saw a big jump from the 1990s in terms of access to capital markets (productive assets) [0] 2. this one is tied into #1. People in developing countries have more access to capital markets and therefore more access to higher yielding products 3. Average annual hours actually worked per worker (OECD) shows a downward trend among practically all countries [1] [0] https://voxeu.org/article/financial-market-development-economic-development https://voxeu.org/article/financial-market-development-econo... [1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Working_time#/media/File:Annual_working_time_in_OECD.svg https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Working_time#/media/File:Annua...
- Biologist123 5y ago1. There is a difference between access and right of access; you’re mixing apples and pears. 2. As above. 3.Your time series starts in 1979 yet should start pre-colonialism, for it to be relevant to your point.