Probably, yes. But that's not proven. The property that a number contains all sequences is called being "normal". We assume π is normal, but we have never prov

Probably, yes. But that's not proven. The property that a number contains all sequences is called being "normal". We assume π is normal, but we have never proven any number to be normal, except those specifically constructed to be that way (like 0.123456789101112131415161718192021...). And that's despite the fact that almost all real numbers are normal.