> So where somebody produced both male and female gametes what sex re they? Both simultaneously? There are no recorded cases of this actually happening, and if

> So where somebody produced both male and female gametes what sex re they? Both simultaneously? There are no recorded cases of this actually happening, and if it did in the future I expect an accurate description of their sex would depend on exactly what unusual biological circumstance has caused them to produce both gamete types. Both sexes simultaneously could perhaps apply in this scenario, e.g. if it was an instance of genetic mosaicism. > Are infertile people sexless? No, why would they be? They'd still belong to the sex class corresponding to their reproductive anatomy, even if it isn't fully functional or has been removed. > Seems like according to this framework you would need to include neuter and perhaps intersex. With most DSDs, the subject's sex is unambiguous. For example, Klinefelter syndrome only applies to males, Turner syndrome to females, etc. Which conditions do you think wouldn't fit in this framework? > I simply don’t hear people making arguments along the lines you’re talking about because “gender” is generally emphasized instead of “sex”. I've observed these arguments being put forward in discussions of transgender issues. Though more recently there seems to be a trend towards arguing that the more nebulous concept of 'gender identity' is the most important factor in determining if someone is a man or a woman (or 'non-binary'). Not that I agree with that either.