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> In fact, writing in dialect languages is not taught. This is actually similar to Western Europe where there was a similar diglossia situation before the Rena
by United857 5y ago
> In fact, writing in dialect languages is not taught.
This is actually similar to Western Europe where there was a similar diglossia situation before the Renaissance. All formal writing by the few literate clergy at the time was in Latin, and there wasn't much writing in the vernacular languages spoken day to day.
- canjobear 5y agoIt's different because in China the dialects are actively suppressed in favor of the standard language (which was also done in Europe in the 19th century for the various national languages).
- ncpa-cpl 5y agoThis happens in Spanish with 'vos' pronoun conjugations. While speakers from Central and Southern South America conjugate verbs using the 'vos' pronoun, none of the keyboard apps I've used support it. And end up autocorrecting 'vos' for 'tú' conjugations. I hope one day I have enough free time to fork a Spanish dictionary so it supports 'vos'.
- Bayart 5y agoWhile I understand the gist of what you're saying, there's quite a large body of work in French, Italian etc. that directly contradicts your point. Unless you consider state administration and literature to be « informal ». Most things switched to vernacular by the 14th c., and writing wasn't at all exclusive to the clergy. There was a healthy class of notary public, magistrates etc. among the laity of the urban societies of the later Middle Ages. The rise of written vernacular was concurrent to the rise of the middle class.