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No- it's part of the consideration in exchange for the developer generating increased tax revenue and dedicating the right of way to the city. If that weren't
by beerandt 5y ago
No- it's part of the consideration in exchange for the developer generating increased tax revenue and dedicating the right of way to the city.
If that weren't the case, the developer would likely keep the parking and streets privately held. Which is something that you do see more and more of these days.
- beerandt 5y agoAdditionally, we've decided as a society that providing public access and right-of-way to private property is a somewhat fundamental function of government. Providing streets without places to stop or park would be like building interstates without exits. But the analogy would be if someone built the intestate and exits, and the government subsequently closed your exit. Does it matter if the street, but not the on-street parking, is made public right-of-way? Would it be equally acceptable for the government to repurpose off-street parking or parking garages?