3 ms·

> The obvious issue with the argument is that the hot lethal variants are observed post vaccine availability. But is that true? Which hot lethal variants arose

• angelzen 5y ago
  From 1998 https://www.tandfonline.com/doi/pdf/10.1080/03079459808419292 https://www.tandfonline.com/doi/pdf/10.1080/0307945980841929..., page S50, Figure 4: BIVAL vv (late 70s) then RISPENS vv+ (early 90s). The text: "The three major pathotype shifts are: (1) from m MDV to v MDV strains in the late 1950s; (2) from v MDV to vv MDV in the late 1970s; (3) the appearance of the putative vv + pathotype in the early 1990s (Figure 4). Each occurrence has been associated with greater disease losses which have persisted until introduction of the next generation of vaccine. The reason for the shifts remain speculative. Shifts in the 1970s and 1990s may have been in response to certain MD vaccines. Kreager (1996) has suggested vaccines may have only a 10-year useful life before new strains evolve. The shift in the 1950s occurred prior to vaccine use, but may have been related to changes in poultry husbandry, especially the move towards larger houses and the increasing density of poultry operations in certain geographic regions" m = mild, v = virulent, vv = very virulent, vv+ = very virulent plus, as explained on page S46, Table 1. To be very clear, Marek is not covid. I am drawing no equivalence. I just point out that Andrew Read's 2021 articlet is built around a weak argument.