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US contract law jurisprudence doesn't really seem to support you here. > The mental assent of the parties is not requisite for the formation of a contract. If
by voxic11 5y ago
US contract law jurisprudence doesn't really seem to support you here.
> The mental assent of the parties is not requisite for the formation of a contract. If the words or other acts of one of the parties have but one reasonable meaning, his undisclosed intention is immaterial except when an unreasonable meaning which he attaches to his manifestations is known to the other party.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lucy_v._Zehmer https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lucy_v._Zehmer
- phkahler 5y agoWell (IANAL) but if you want to get into contract law, my understanding is that a contract requires acknowledgement from both parties. It's not really fair to say "the functioning of the software is acknowledgement" when the company granting that permission has no record of it. Ask a CEO on the stand if his company has any binding agreements with the judge.
- GoblinSlayer 5y agoThat looks very different: >Zehmer wrote on the back of the restaurant's receipt stating, "We hereby agree to sell to W. O. Lucy the Ferguson Farm complete for $50,000.00, title satisfactory to buyer". The note was signed by Zehmer and his wife.