There s an implied causation in this correlation but it doesnt have to be either way and the data has no indication. If we accept that there's a certain level o

There s an implied causation in this correlation but it doesnt have to be either way and the data has no indication. If we accept that there's a certain level of sexual orientation fluidity, what if educated men tend to prefer to err on the gay side, and what would be the implications of this. Also, as others said, it's easier to be "out" when your peers are MScs and PhDs , where the pressure to be progressive is higher