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> Given a set of occupations with different sex ratios, to change the ratio of any specific occupation the ratios of other occupations must also change. Logica
by tuatoru 5y ago
> Given a set of occupations with different sex ratios, to change the ratio of any specific occupation the ratios of other occupations must also change.
Logically there is an alternative: one sex can withdraw from the labor market.
Male labor force participation is declining.[1] Female labor force participation is declining at a slightly lower rate.[2]
1. 80% -> 74.5%, 1990-2019. https://data.worldbank.org/indicator/SL.TLF.CACT.MA.ZS https://data.worldbank.org/indicator/SL.TLF.CACT.MA.ZS
2. 51% -> 47%, 1990 - 2019. https://data.worldbank.org/indicator/SL.TLF.CACT.FE.ZS https://data.worldbank.org/indicator/SL.TLF.CACT.FE.ZS
- adolph 5y agoAgreed and I also wonder if decreasing workforce participation in males is related. At the same time, since male-female workforce mix is relatively stable, there may be no relation.