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I said direct and immediate physical harm. “Psychological harm” is something else entirely. Your position presupposes the guilt and innocence of both parties.
by teakettle42 5y ago
I said direct and immediate physical harm.
“Psychological harm” is something else entirely.
Your position presupposes the guilt and innocence of both parties.
The individual claiming “psychological harm” can just as easily be the perpetrator, and psychological harm will be inflicted on the victim by the state when they’re arrested for upsetting someone with narcissistic personality disorder.
- floatingatoll 5y agoI do not presuppose guilt or innocence, but a claim must be made in order to reach a judgment on either, so all claims are presupposed in that sense. It seems unlikely that a UK court would reach such a judgment in favor of the perpetrator, as opposed to simply jailing them.