4 ms·
Hmmmm. The obvious question here is, did the previously-infected group catch Covid-19 more because we're selecting for people who're at higher risk of catching
by makomk 5y ago
Hmmmm. The obvious question here is, did the previously-infected group catch Covid-19 more because we're selecting for people who're at higher risk of catching Covid-19, for example because of their job or some other similar external factor? Those differences are not reassuring on this area, and they suggest another question: is the actual reason a higher proportion of hospitalized people test negative for Covid-19 amongst those who're vaccinated because those who are at higher risk of being hospitalized for other reasons are more likely to get vaccinated?
- bigodbiel 5y agoThis reminds me of the recent study where vaccinated people had less non-covid related deaths than non vaccinated. Obviously this isn’t because of the vaccine but demographics of each group, such as healthcare access. Having access to healthcare, for example, makes one more likely to seek medical help at the briefest presentation of illness. Being the latter more common among the vaccinated, analyzing for positive cases only among hospitalizations for “covid-like symptoms” is extremely disingenuous.