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My hypothesis is that the nature of sexual selective pressures is what is more likely to create differences between the groups. This wouldn't really apply in th
by gonehome 5y ago
My hypothesis is that the nature of sexual selective pressures is what is more likely to create differences between the groups. This wouldn't really apply in the birthmark case (unless it was some sort of secondary sexual characteristic).
Either way, society should allow for equal opportunity even if there are differences in average interest between groups since the variation within a group is larger anyway. It just means not seeing the same outcome doesn't necessarily mean something has gone wrong.
- mcguire 5y agoOut of curiosity, what outcome would mean something has gone wrong? 75%? 90%?
- gonehome 5y agoI honestly don’t know. I also recognize it’s a politically fraught question. It could still be true though.
- mcguire 5y agoThe reason I ask is because... * Women make up 25.2% of "Computer and mathematical occupations" (https://www.bls.gov/cps/cpsaat11.htm https://www.bls.gov/cps/cpsaat11.htm) * World-wide, women make up < 9% (https://www.statista.com/statistics/1126823/worldwide-developer-gender/ https://www.statista.com/statistics/1126823/worldwide-develo...) * "38% of women who majored in computer science are working in the field compared to 53% of men" (https://www.cio.com/article/3516012/women-in-tech-statistics-the-hard-truths-of-an-uphill-battle.html https://www.cio.com/article/3516012/women-in-tech-statistics...) Somehow, it just doesn't smell like a preference.