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That doesn't follow, at all. You're measuring the 40% increase in profits relative to the amount of profits but the 1% increase in wages relative to the amount
by makomk 5y ago
That doesn't follow, at all. You're measuring the 40% increase in profits relative to the amount of profits but the 1% increase in wages relative to the amount spent on wages, and those pots are generally very different in size - in fact, the smaller the amount of money that goes to profits compared to workers, the more biased against workers and towards profits measuring this way makes it look. Generally in retail, wages are one of the main costs and are a lot bigger than profit margin outside of small specialized companies.
Also, that article reads like propaganda. They carefully avoid quoting any figures that are meaningfully comparable. For example, the industry-wide figures they quote compare the average increase in profit for selected entire large companies for a year not to the increase in their annual staffing bill, but the increase in one hour's pay for one worker. The only comparison between total staffing bills and anything else is for one cherry-picked company that increased its pay to staff whilst making a loss on its US operations over the time period they're looking at and having a 68% drop in overall profits, if I'm reading the linked report correctly. But they carefully don't compare to that company's profits at all.
- Closi 5y agoIt’s a good point, especially considering retail profits in sectors like food can be as low as 2-3% of revenue, so a 40% increase might be an extra 1% of revenue, while labour costs might make up 30-40% of costs, so if those went up by the same absolute percentage then the chain would be losing money (which would presumably then allow them to cut everyone’s wages by the same proportion by the same logic?)