So 40% of US stocks are owned by foreigners. 30% by pensions funds? And now 89% owned by the top 10% of Americans making 159% ??? I would guess the correct hea

So 40% of US stocks are owned by foreigners. 30% by pensions funds? And now 89% owned by the top 10% of Americans making 159% ??? I would guess the correct headline is something like "of the shares held directly by private American individuals the brokerage accounts of the top 10% hold 89% of those shares". Which sounds perfectly plausible. Does the article writer understand this or are they confused as to the meaning? Is this artical and discussion just gibberish all the way down or is it me whose not understanding?