If there was anything interesting with the comparison, it would be to look at the difference between total wealth inequality and stock ownership inequality and

If there was anything interesting with the comparison, it would be to look at the difference between total wealth inequality and stock ownership inequality and see if there was anything that is unexpected. We may expect A group owning 90% of wealth to own 90% of stocks. If this isn't the case, is this surprising? (I don't remember the wealth inequality statistics, so I'm just theorizing here).