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Neither, because books are completely unaffordable to anybody who is a part of the working class. ;)
by AussieWog93 5y ago
Neither, because books are completely unaffordable to anybody who is a part of the working class. ;)
- ggm 5y agoThese books, yes. Horn books, chapbooks, slates and wax tablets, not to mention lead scrolls, have been available in volume since people had leather, shoulder bones, horn and lead. They found letters from ordinary Romans home to wives and mothers in vindolanda, there have been overt religious/political diatribes against widespread literacy and women's literacy and I think that begs questions too: arguing to keep people illiterate suggests a state of literacy at large.
- AussieWog93 5y ago>arguing to keep people illiterate suggests a state of literacy at large. I don't think anybody is arguing this.
- ggm 5y agoHistorically, at some points in time I believe both the church and state did. The reformation is blamed in part on increasing adult literacy, and the translation of the bible into the vernacular, combined with a drastic drop in the cost of the means of production of written materials.
- speedybird 5y agoLiteracy is not a binary. It was apparently common for working class people to have some practical literacy; the ability to recognize and write words in their local vernacular that were relevant to their lives and professions. A little bit of literacy goes a long way to facilitate trade and commerce, even if you're not comfortable reading a whole book. In fact there are still some people who go through life like this in developed countries today.