Regardless of anything else you've said; The weak form of Sapir-Whorf is obviously true with respect to human languages. No, it's not. Nothing is "obvious

Regardless of anything else you've said; The weak form of Sapir-Whorf is obviously true with respect to human languages. No, it's not. Nothing is "obviously true", least of all a pretty grandiose theory, and I can't find any source that empirically backs up the idea that the weak version of the hypothesis is true at all.