4 ms·
if an EU country, obviously, since this court ruling is just confirming the 1991 EU copyright directive for a specific case.
by detaro 5y ago
if an EU country, obviously, since this court ruling is just confirming the 1991 EU copyright directive for a specific case.
- jhgb 5y agoYes, an EU country, but as far as I can tell, we've already had these provisions since before our accession to the EU in the 2000s.
- krzyk 5y agoEU law supersedes local law. So if your country one would prohibit such actions, EU law would take precedence and allow it.
- jhgb 5y agoI may be wrong but I was under the impression that local law would have to be harmonized to comply with it in this case anyway. So at that point you have no contradiction of the two. That the local law would diverge instead sounds highly hypothetical.
- djhn 5y agoIn practice the enforcement of laws happens at the national level, and EU precedence doesn't always bridge the gap between theory and practice.
- elsjaako 5y ago"EU law" can refer to several different things. As far as I understand, this is a ruling about Council Directive 91/250/EEC. A directive is like a template from the EU that gets copied into local laws. So there is no distinction between local an EU law here. https://ec.europa.eu/info/law/law-making-process/types-eu-law_en https://ec.europa.eu/info/law/law-making-process/types-eu-la...