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My interpretation of that phrasing is that it refers to the risk of hospitalization from a single infection of COVID-19, so I don't think the time frame matters
by tshaddox 5y ago
My interpretation of that phrasing is that it refers to the risk of hospitalization from a single infection of COVID-19, so I don't think the time frame matters all that much (other than perhaps much later hospitalizations from long-term effects that we still don't know a lot about yet).
- Denvercoder9 5y ago> My interpretation of that phrasing is that it refers to the risk of hospitalization from a single infection of COVID-19 That interpretation is not supported by the source linked by GP. The risk you allude to (infection hospitalization rate) was generally reported as ~5% (it's probably halved now that half the population is vaccinated). See for example [0], the first Google hit I got, or the CDC COVID tracker [1], where reported hospitalizations divided by reported infections gives 3.6%. [0] https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC7895685/ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC7895685/ [1] https://www.cdc.gov/coronavirus/2019-ncov/covid-data/covidview/index.html https://www.cdc.gov/coronavirus/2019-ncov/covid-data/covidvi...
- shusaku 5y agoI don’t blame him for misinterpreting it though, Gallup basically made a trick question and then write an article about how stupid Americans were for getting it wrong.
- nojokes 5y agoIt is also possible that people who answered got the interpretation wrong.