3 ms·

Would you put that threshold at 40% because I doubt Apple holds that much of the market of all app stores.

• Jensson 5y ago
  EU puts it right about there, yes. You can be found to be anti competitive in other ways, but 40% is already enough for the market dominance rules to apply to you. > According to case law, market shares of between 40 % and 55 % indicate a dominant position on the market (Eberhard, 2006). https://www.europarl.europa.eu/RegData/etudes/IDAN/2019/642209/EPRS_IDA(2019)642209_EN.pdf https://www.europarl.europa.eu/RegData/etudes/IDAN/2019/6422...
  • r00fus 5y ago
    Does Apple have 40% of the app store market? That's what I'd question. How do you define such a market?
    • shadilay 5y ago
      Revenue probably.
      • r00fus 5y ago
        That's not how you count it, right? Otherwise it simply leads to a race-to-the-bottom where an ad-supported product gets to bypass market regulation because they get their money in a different channel.
• clusterfish 5y ago
  Of course. A single company holding 40% of the market is hugely powerful. But it's often hard to define what a "market" is - that is usually decided during litigation, I don't know if definingt that proactively is scalable.