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You omitted the other criteria. Only one of the following needs to be satisfied for the law to apply: * Annual gross revenue generated in Ohio above $25 millio
by jonas21 5y ago
You omitted the other criteria. Only one of the following needs to be satisfied for the law to apply:
* Annual gross revenue generated in Ohio above $25 million.
* Controls or processes the personal data of 100,000 or more consumers during the calendar year.
* Derives more than 50% of its gross revenue from the sale of personal data and processes/controls the personal data of 25,000 or more consumers during a calendar year.
If you control or process the personal data of more than 100K consumers, or have more than $25M in Ohio revenue, then it doesn't matter where your revenue comes from.
Also, gross revenue from sale of personal data is straightforward to measure and verify: How much did you get paid for the data? Profit is not since this depends on how you allocate expenses to various parts of the business.
- akersten 5y ago> Also, gross revenue from sale of personal data is straightforward to measure and verify: How much did you get paid for the data? I really wouldn't say that it's straightforward at all. How much money would you guess Google (or any AdTech firm) "makes" under that definition in Ohio? I would bet you the farm that it's actually $0, because they're not selling data, they're selling ad space ("retargeting").
- maxerickson 5y agoBut it's 'or', so who cares. Is there some clever argument they can use to avoid admitting that they process data that they process?
- deleted 5y ago[deleted]
- jonas21 5y agoExactly. Google does not sell personal data, so its revenue from selling personal data is $0. Of course Google is still subject to the law because it qualifies on the other two criteria.