4 ms·
I've thought about this a fair bit myself, and I think it's a combination of a couple of the reasons stated. First, it's a reasonable range in which every othe
by jedimastert 5y ago
I've thought about this a fair bit myself, and I think it's a combination of a couple of the reasons stated.
First, it's a reasonable range in which every other note can be played within the string before.
But more importantly, I think it's just because it's incredibly easy to hear a fifth for tuning. Humans are fairly adept at hearing minute differences between two of the same frequency (i.e. a few hertz or cents off) when two notes are exactly the same, a fifth above share the most harmonics within that reasonable fingering range.
- dhosek 5y agoAlthough it's typical to tune orchestral strings using harmonics to match the pitches. For the cello, viola and violin, this is done by comparing the 2nd and 3rd harmonics (at the octave and twelfth). For the bass, tuned in fourths, one compares the 3rd and 4th harmonics (at the 12th and second octave).