Is that causal, or do more women go into the profession because the profession changes (it becomes less valuable and/or more flexible and thus more appealing to

Is that causal, or do more women go into the profession because the profession changes (it becomes less valuable and/or more flexible and thus more appealing to women in aggregate)? Also, I could be convinced that discriminatory attitudes contributed strongly prior to say, 1990, but I think it would be a mistake to believe that to extrapolate that to today (particularly considering how much more “cost-optimized” our workplaces have become). If the paper does demonstrate a causal relationship, I would probably have to revisit my priors. I’d need to spend more time with it though, these studies are often subject to errors (e.g., Goldin’s groundbreaking study on sex discrimination in orchestras).