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IIRC it has been shown that all taste preferences are acquired based on individual neurophysiological responses to taste stimuli; in other words, internal effec
by eurasiantiger 5y ago
IIRC it has been shown that all taste preferences are acquired based on individual neurophysiological responses to taste stimuli; in other words, internal effects dictate external preferences.
- hutzlibu 5y agoWhere was this shown? No doubt there is influence, but on the first time use, flavor comes before the effect.
- eurasiantiger 5y agoIt was a study in a respectable journal, but unfortunately I cannot recall more. Obviously one cannot have a preference for something they haven’t had.
- hutzlibu 5y agoBut isn't then the "aquired taste" linked to that specific sensory input? So even though your brain likes substance x in the new coffee - it cannot connect it when drinking something that tastes different on first try, even though might have the same effect.
- eurasiantiger 5y agoThat’s the thing—taste is intimately linked with effect. Every coffee drinker will notice if someone switches brands on them. That’s also why people with certain CYP3A4 variants dislike the taste of CYP3A4-inhibiting foods such as grapefruit, and people with certain variants absolutely love them. CYP3A4 is a liver enzyme responsible for metabolising human sex hormones, as well as most pharmaceutical and recreational drugs, including caffeine.
- eurasiantiger 5y agoHere’s a source clearly demonstrating that taste has not been selected for in our evolution, but effect on CYP3A4 has: https://link.springer.com/article/10.1186/s12862-019-1366-7 https://link.springer.com/article/10.1186/s12862-019-1366-7
- andi999 5y agoSo that is the thing called 'acquired taste'?