3 ms·
Is that really so? Has this been researched over longer periods? I'm honestly curious, because I'm probably biased when I think about medieval inquisitions or
by berkes 5y ago
Is that really so? Has this been researched over longer periods?
I'm honestly curious, because I'm probably biased when I think about medieval inquisitions or 1930 Race theories. Was, say, a black person in Rome treated bad because of racism? Were Jews hated in ancient early Muslim cities? Were there no same sex couples in, say, a 1500 village at the swedish coast? I can imagine many 'queer' were just accepted as such in many communities throughout the world, throughout the ages. But I can just as well imagine it being literally deadly to be even a little out of line, just as well.
- dillondoyle 5y agothere are definitely cultures that were more accepting that the US in the previous say 100 years. I know an example is 3rd gender in India as an example. It does seem like the US took a step backwards. But from like a tiny percent. If queerness was say at 5%, it goes to 1%. and now we're at like 70% type of analogy.
- lthornberry 5y agoYou are correct that racism as we know it is a product of, roughly speaking, the post-1550 world. The response to homoerotic acts has varied extremely widely across time and space. "Same sex couples" were pretty uncommon in most times and places (largely because almost no one thought of marriage/cohabitation as something constituted primarily by romantic love or even sexual desire). But plenty of examples of people having same-sex sex and even long-lasting relationships.