> And what would that be? A study linking both while accounting for every other factor? I don't think it's even possible to do such a thing. What’s the point o

> And what would that be? A study linking both while accounting for every other factor? I don't think it's even possible to do such a thing. What’s the point of saying something if you think that it’s impossible to prove? > There is competition even in software development, it doesn't take anyone to be a bartender for competition to cause a wage drop, moreover the reality is way more stark when you look at jobs that aren't as cushy as software development. A Spanish waiter is probably used to lower salaries and is probably more dependent on his job than an English one that has a support network in his country, his chances to unionize are also lower. We see it all the time with immigrants from low income countries. The number of software developers in the UK kept going up until the beginning of lockdowns, but salaries went up instead of going down. How’s that possible if more people mean lower wages? Is there any evidence of Spanish bartenders pushing bartender salaries down? > I can imagine how immigration can lead to economic growth and salary growth as a result, but I find it impossible that the race to the bottom caused in low-income jobs is worth for them at all, if anything the economic growth is caused by this low-cost labor. Is there any evidence of this “race to the bottom [..] in low-income jobs”? Is there any evidence of it being caused by immigration?