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Why wouldn't you consider the many experiments with communism in the 20th century to be attempts at eliminating wealth inequality? You could argue that they mor
by fighterpilot 5y ago
Why wouldn't you consider the many experiments with communism in the 20th century to be attempts at eliminating wealth inequality? You could argue that they morphed into something different but the initial motivation based on hatred of rich people seems pretty clear cut. Not to argue that there wasn't also other motives at play.
- ZeroGravitas 5y agoBecause they weren't? This is like describing the freeing of the slaves in America as "attempts at eliminating wealth inequality" (and/or "hatred of rich people"). Yes, the people who owned slaves were generally wealthy. Yes, the slaves were not wealthy. Being given back legal ownership of themselves and their children could be seen as a kind of wealth transfer from rich to poor, but that wasn't the point of it. Some historical context: https://www.rbth.com/history/331117-how-abolishing-serfdom-led-to-revolution https://www.rbth.com/history/331117-how-abolishing-serfdom-l...