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I do not believe that it does. Literally is used to distinguish figurative speech from literal speech, while verbatim is used to distinguish exact wording from
by TheDong 5y ago
I do not believe that it does.
Literally is used to distinguish figurative speech from literal speech, while verbatim is used to distinguish exact wording from paraphrasing.
For example, if I had temporarily lost my voice and couldn't talk, and someone texted "want to call", if I replied "I can't talk right now", they would assume I meant I was busy, but if I replied "I literally can't talk right now", that would accurately convey that I was in situation where talking wasn't possible, not merely busy. "I verbatim can't talk right now" is nonsense.