9 ms·
All the examples you mention are those where the customer actually intended to pay if the meal is properly cooked, and thus would have if there were no issues.
by dataflow 5y ago
All the examples you mention are those where the customer actually intended to pay if the meal is properly cooked, and thus would have if there were no issues. Not ones where they place an order intending not to make the payment they promise to. Are you sure that isn't a crime? It sounds like fraud to me (or some other crime) but I'm not a lawyer.
The problem is likely that distinguishing these for prosecution/conviction, but that's probably a similarity with wage theft, not a dissimilarity.
- deleted 5y ago[deleted]