4 ms·
The ½ comes from integrating W = Fd. No one is arguing against that. The equation should be W = mv² = 2Fd. Why? because v² = 2 a*d.
by SirIsaac 5y ago
The ½ comes from integrating W = Fd. No one is arguing against that.
The equation should be W = mv² = 2Fd. Why? because v² = 2 a*d.
- woofie11 5y agoYes, the algebra works, but you lose the intuition for what's going on. There's a pattern of factorial terms you see with successive integrations: 1/1, 1/2, 1/6, 1/24, 1/n!, Multiplying by 2 changes this to 2, 1, 1/3, 1/12, 2/n!. I view that as a clear loser, not a winner.
- SirIsaac 5y agoOk. Thanks for the exchange.