> I was responding to: Yes, I'm perfectly aware. > I responded with people and their speech that faced intolerance with total disregard for free speech. I doe

> I was responding to: Yes, I'm perfectly aware. > I responded with people and their speech that faced intolerance with total disregard for free speech. I doesn't even look like you are following the conversation anymore. Yes, I'm fully aware of how you responded. My point is that "people facing intolerance with total disregard for free speech" is not a new thing, as evidenced by the examples given from earlier times. Breaking this down, you seem to think that giving examples of intolerance is enough to prove the initial claim, "people have become far more intolerant regarding free speech.", but it isn't. If someone else shows equal intolerance prior to the last 6-8 years, all your examples show is that the intolerance has not changed. You haven't shown that they've gotten worse, only that they haven't gotten better. > You are mixing up causation. You're once again misunderstanding my comment. I'm making the opposite causality argument than the one you appear to think I'm making. As acceptance of gay people goes up, acceptance of slurs against gay people goes down. The question is, then, did we have "freer" speech when people faced criticism for saying "I am gay" as they did in the past, as compared to now where you face criticism for calling someone a slur?