4 ms·
There have been times and places where slavery had majority consent, even considering the opinions of the slaves. In all of those cases, I would say that the sl
by hirundo 5y ago
There have been times and places where slavery had majority consent, even considering the opinions of the slaves. In all of those cases, I would say that the slavery was still coercive. So yes, you can have the consent of at least the majority of the ruled and still be coercive. Almost nothing wins the consent of everyone, so almost any rule is coercive to someone.
- judge2020 5y agoThe real thing to gauge is human suffering, which isn’t easy to measure so it often isn’t measured.
- bobthechef 5y agoThe real thing to look at is moral principle rooted in the natural law. This is why tradition is important. It is a dialogue occurring through history done in humble acknowledgment that we cannot "start from scratch" and do better just like that.