I wonder if the omission of Rome is purposeful, in that they would not be considered a hydraulic empire. At its height the city itself used as much water daily

I wonder if the omission of Rome is purposeful, in that they would not be considered a hydraulic empire. At its height the city itself used as much water daily as NYC in 1925 thanks to the massive engineering achievement that was its vast system of aqueducts. As a republic, were they sufficiently centrally organized to fall under the aforementioned category or did the constituent states have autonomy over water resources?