The 2012 article states: > Specifically, we ran analyses examining whether the two conditions differed in the number of instances wherein reported odometer mil

The 2012 article states: > Specifically, we ran analyses examining whether the two conditions differed in the number of instances wherein reported odometer mileages ended with 0, 5, 00, 50, 000, or 500. Numbers that end with these digits indicate a higher likelihood that customers simply estimated their mileage. We detected no statistically significant differences between our two conditions in the instances in which these endings appeared (pooled measure: treatment, 19.9% vs. control, 20.8%; χ2 = 2.5, P = 0.12). 1. What does this mean? (“Pooled measure”) Wouldn't a mileage ending in 500 also end in 0 and 00? 2. If the numbers are uniformly randomly generated, shouldn’t the odds of ending in 0 be 10%, not 20%? Or is this an equal mix of fraudulent and real data in both arms? Just curious because this is the one of the only bits of data for the fraudulent study in the 2012 article.