3 ms·
No, the very definition of wage theft implies intention. """Wage theft is the denial of wages or employee benefits rightfully owed to an employee. It can be co
by goodpoint 5y ago
No, the very definition of wage theft implies intention.
"""Wage theft is the denial of wages or employee benefits rightfully owed to an employee. It can be conducted by employers in various ways, among them failing to pay overtime; violating minimum-wage laws; the misclassification of employees as independent contractors, illegal deductions in pay; forcing employees to work "off the clock", not paying annual leave or holiday entitlements, or simply not paying an employee at all. """
from https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wage_theft https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wage_theft
It's not a delay in payment or a misplaced bag of potatoes.
- deleted 5y ago[deleted]
- gruez 5y agofair enough. The definition I skimmed from epi was much looser: >This failure to pay what workers are legally entitled to can be called wage theft https://www.epi.org/publication/epidemic-wage-theft-costing-workers-hundreds/ https://www.epi.org/publication/epidemic-wage-theft-costing-...
- goodpoint 5y agoNo, it's very clear in the first 2 paragraph that EPI is referring to recurring underpayment, not an occasional good-faith error or delay.