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How can islands with no native population, which have never been ruled by Argentina, possibly be ‘occupied territory’? Argentina’s claim is basically that they
by carnitine 5y ago
How can islands with no native population, which have never been ruled by Argentina, possibly be ‘occupied territory’? Argentina’s claim is basically that they are heir to the Spanish empire, despite the wishes of 99% of the residents.
- fiftyacorn 5y agoAs I understand it the claim is whether or not Falklands was populated when UK claimed it. Argentina says yes, uk says no
- hef19898 5y agoWell, the French settled forst and handed over the islands to the Spanish in 1776 based on the Spanish/Portuguese colonial agreement from the 15th century. For most of the time since the 19th the islands were under British control. That would be like basing territorial claims everywhere based on borders from 200 years ago. Or worse, picking the borders from a period that suits best. And we are talking about the Spanish Empire here, not modern day independent Argentina.
- fiftyacorn 5y agoThe issue is were they defending the claim. To do that you needed to inhabit it according to the laws at the time
- dragonwriter 5y ago> To do that you needed to inhabit it according to the laws at the time Aside from specific agreements between states, there wasn't really international law at the time.
- hef19898 5y agoAnd even if you do you can loose territory. Just look at all the European borders since, say, the mid 19th century.