>Not how I understood it. But it seems you're right, the US only used war time powers to force companies to fill their orders first. No. The US did invoke the

>Not how I understood it. But it seems you're right, the US only used war time powers to force companies to fill their orders first. No. The US did invoke the Defense Production Act for certain medical equipment, to further ensure that its vaccine contracts are fulfilled first (<https://www.bloomberg.com/news/articles/2021-03-24/biden-uses-trump-s-america-first-vaccine-plan-to-corner-market?sref=gzDhqlP8 https://www.bloomberg.com/news/articles/2021-03-24/biden-use...>). (But, let me quote for others' benefit (<https://www.ft.com/content/82fa8fb4-a867-4005-b6c2-a79969139119 https://www.ft.com/content/82fa8fb4-a867-4005-b6c2-a79969139...>): "The DPA does not allow the administration to block exports overseas".) The US's contracts would have been fulfilled first regardless (albeit more slowly) without the DPA, because (as I said) the US was the first and paid the most. We know this because the US's Pfizer contract explicitly prohibited the company from exporting US-produced vaccine doses until March 31, but the company only began to export US-produced doses at the end of April because it still had to fulfill said US contract first (<https://www.barrons.com/articles/pfizer-to-export-u-s-made-vaccine-doses-report-says-51619785111 https://www.barrons.com/articles/pfizer-to-export-u-s-made-v...>).