4 ms·

To show an etymological connection requires more than just a superficial resemblance. You would need to explain where the "o" in o-keanos came from and why "-ua

To show an etymological connection requires more than just a superficial resemblance. You would need to explain where the "o" in o-keanos came from and why "-ua-" would change to "-ea-" in that environment but not in other environments. It looks like most sources guess that it's a loanword but there are a few other speculations given on Wiktionary: https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/%E1%BD%A8%CE%BA%CE%B5%CE%B1%CE%BD%CF%8C%CF%82#Ancient_Greek https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/%E1%BD%A8%CE%BA%CE%B5%CE%B1%C...

coldtea 5y ago
>where the "o" in o-keanos came from That would be an easy task, since "o" means "the" for male subjects in ancient Greek (grammatical articles like "the" were gendered). So o-kyanos would literally be "the cyan one". (Not saying that's the etymology, but the "o" would be easy to explain). As for the "y" changing to "e", similar changes happen all the time in ancient, hellenistic and medieval Greek for phonetic reasons (literally: just because it sounded better this way). It can also be the case that there were several variants in different city states, and the modern version is just the one that stuck.
- jhanschoo 5y ago
  > That would be an easy task, since "o" means "the" for male subjects in ancient Greek (grammatical articles like "the" were gendered). Not really. There would need to be an explanation why ho -> ō in this case where no such change occurs in other words. As well as why it does not follow the model of οὗτος in declension.
  - coldtea 5y ago
    >As well as why it does not follow the model of οὗτος in declension. Well, okeanos does follow the model of οὗτος in declension.