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> Do all experiences bias people in a way that makes true understanding harder? Meaning that true understanding can only exist in the absence of first-hand know
by amadeuspagel 5y ago
> Do all experiences bias people in a way that makes true understanding harder? Meaning that true understanding can only exist in the absence of first-hand knowledge? Or is there a way to experience something in a way that furthers understanding?
These are all very interesting philosophical questions. However, I'm not talking about all experiencies, I'm talking about specific experiences. If only some experiences bias people, an analogy to something that people have less experience with can be useful.
> Is it useful? What is it that Americans understand about censorship in China that they can't understand about censorship in America?
One thing that Americans understand about China, that they don't understand about the US, is that no private organization can be absolutely independent of the government, that the government has many subtle ways to pressure private organizations. This is especially true for profit-driven public companies. The only thing necessary to successfully pressure them is to make resistance more expensive then surrender.
> Do you think those private companies made that decision without influence from the government?
No. Not in the US, not in China.