2 ms·
Possibly because they are in the period of time after the first jab, but before the second?
by SideburnsOfDoom 5y ago
Possibly because they are in the period of time after the first jab, but before the second?
- detaro 5y agothat's usually not counted as "vaccinated" though
- nanis 5y agoFWIW, unless explicitly otherwise specified, official stats only consider people who have had two weeks since second does as vaccinated for the purpose of counting how many vaccinated get infected, hospitalized, or die.
- chiefalchemist 5y agoLink? I'm curious because the gist I get is there are a fair number of got #1 but not #2. What I hear / read repeatedly are "...has at least one shot..." and that is stated in the context of vaccinated. That is, for example, NJ (where I live) is somewhere around 65 - 70%. Certain 100% are not with two jabs. There's simply too much (intentional) antiquity and statistical mumbo-jumbo.
- nanis 5y agohttps://www.cdc.gov/vaccines/covid-19/health-departments/breakthrough-cases.html https://www.cdc.gov/vaccines/covid-19/health-departments/bre...