3 ms·

Why on earth do we measure coffee in cups? People drink more espresso and other drinks like cold brew than ever these days, just talk about caffeine in mg

adenozine 5y ago
Cups is actually more specific, if we're relying on the baseline of regular drip-brew joe. There's other factors at play than just caffeine intake or else we'd have heard about this surrounding energy drinks and meal replacement supplements. Granted, I haven't read the study, but the coffee/caffeine invariant just came to mind when I read your comment.
- gnabgib 5y ago
  There are certainly other factors, but a cup is far from the specific solution you seek [0]. There's only one country that has current unit definition of a cup (the US), which is 8 (US) fluid ounces (fl.oz) (or 236.6ml), or differently as a "legal" cup at 240ml [1]. It used to be defined as 10 Imperial fl.oz in the UK (284ml), although rarely used. While much of the world defines a metric cup as 250ml. But then there's the exception that is coffee.. a cup of coffee in the US is the product of using 5 fl.oz producing approximately 4 fl.oz of coffee[0] A "cup": 118-284ml [0]: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cup_%28unit%29 https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cup_%28unit%29 [1]: https://www.fda.gov/regulatory-information/search-fda-guidance-documents/guidance-industry-guidelines-determining-metric-equivalents-household-measures https://www.fda.gov/regulatory-information/search-fda-guidan...
  - adenozine 5y ago
    Ah, you've out-semantic'd me, I was referring to cups as being a more specific term of the different modes of coffee consumption. I'm in favor of the metric system. I did not know that the definition of a "cup" of coffee in the US was under such a broad variance. Thanks for the info!
desktopninja 5y ago
Yes. Using caffeine in mg would make for more sense to use. RE: https://www.fda.gov/consumers/consumer-updates/spilling-beans-how-much-caffeine-too-much https://www.fda.gov/consumers/consumer-updates/spilling-bean...

adenozine 5y ago

Cups is actually more specific, if we're relying on the baseline of regular drip-brew joe. There's other factors at play than just caffeine intake or else we'd have heard about this surrounding energy drinks and meal replacement supplements. Granted, I haven't read the study, but the coffee/caffeine invariant just came to mind when I read your comment.

gnabgib 5y ago
There are certainly other factors, but a cup is far from the specific solution you seek [0]. There's only one country that has current unit definition of a cup (the US), which is 8 (US) fluid ounces (fl.oz) (or 236.6ml), or differently as a "legal" cup at 240ml [1]. It used to be defined as 10 Imperial fl.oz in the UK (284ml), although rarely used. While much of the world defines a metric cup as 250ml. But then there's the exception that is coffee.. a cup of coffee in the US is the product of using 5 fl.oz producing approximately 4 fl.oz of coffee[0] A "cup": 118-284ml [0]: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cup_%28unit%29 https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cup_%28unit%29 [1]: https://www.fda.gov/regulatory-information/search-fda-guidance-documents/guidance-industry-guidelines-determining-metric-equivalents-household-measures https://www.fda.gov/regulatory-information/search-fda-guidan...
- adenozine 5y ago
  Ah, you've out-semantic'd me, I was referring to cups as being a more specific term of the different modes of coffee consumption. I'm in favor of the metric system. I did not know that the definition of a "cup" of coffee in the US was under such a broad variance. Thanks for the info!

desktopninja 5y ago

Yes. Using caffeine in mg would make for more sense to use. RE: https://www.fda.gov/consumers/consumer-updates/spilling-beans-how-much-caffeine-too-much https://www.fda.gov/consumers/consumer-updates/spilling-bean...