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What’s the distinction? Of course in both cases when you say “the country has an energy surplus” or “the country can export something” you’re actually talking a
by tshaddox 5y ago
What’s the distinction? Of course in both cases when you say “the country has an energy surplus” or “the country can export something” you’re actually talking about people in the country.
- fedreserved 5y agoCountry not allowed to trade with the rest of the world for example
- smt88 5y ago> when you say “the country has an energy surplus” or “the country can export something” you’re actually talking about people in the country I'm not. In most developed countries, energy is one of the following: - nationalized - "privatized" (e.g. Russia, where the companies are partially govt-owned or the oligarchs are Putin cronies) - privatized oligopoly In any case, unless the government or the energy company wants to go into mining, the surplus can't just be transferred into mining. So the question becomes, does the energy surplus actually translate into lower prices for consumers, and the consumers can then convert it into assets? That's what I meant by "people": do the consumers of the energy actually have a way to monetize the surplus?