2 ms·
Some Jews lived in Arab/Muslim/Persian places before being expelled from Spain so they don't originate from Spain. I think most of them didn't actually.
by joelbluminator 5y ago
Some Jews lived in Arab/Muslim/Persian places before being expelled from Spain so they don't originate from Spain. I think most of them didn't actually.
- bogomipz 5y agoNowhere did I say they "originate" from Spain. Obviously the Jewish people originated from the Land of Israel in the Southern Levant. After the Roman conquest of Judaea[1] begins the diaspora and those we now call Sephardic migrated to Spain and Portugal. They were there for a good 1,700 years before being expelled. I think that's sufficiently long enough to consider them Iberian. Historians do as well. This is actually widely accepted. Further it only makes sense to consider the names Sephardic, Ashkenazic and Mizrahi from the point of the diaspora forward. Those names literally would not exist without the diaspora. Your comment makes no sense historically or otherwise. It's also very bizarre that that you write "Arab/Muslim/Persian" to denote different geographical distinctions when only one of those things is. [1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_the_Jews_in_Spain https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_the_Jews_in_Spain
- joelbluminator 5y agoI don't think we have an argument actually, all I said was not all Mizrahi jews descend from the Sephardics, I don't have any numbers though but definitely not all of them.