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I'm assuming your reference of "it" is the "sale of the stock" instead of the "sale of the options contract". It would be suspicious but his "alibi" is that it
by irjustin 5y ago
I'm assuming your reference of "it" is the "sale of the stock" instead of the "sale of the options contract".
It would be suspicious but his "alibi" is that it was part of someone exercising call options that he sold.
Assuming this is true, he actually has no control when the exercise happened, thus no control of the timing of the sale of the stock itself.
This would need to be verified via the brokerage probably through a subpoena, so it's not really a realistic investigation.
- HWR_14 5y agoI'm not sure why you would think I was referencing the "sale of stock" since my point has been the only interesting day was the "sale of option" date. That's what I'm referring to. Someone else said that he sold the option the same day he bought the stock. That would clear him from any suspecion. However, that's second hand based on someone saying it was in the article and I misread it (quite possible.) What I was claiming is that the timing makes me think he might sold the option after getting inside information, specifically so he could say "I had to sell the stock" which is a true an irrelevant fact if you sold the obligation based on that information. Now, like I said, if he sold the option the same day he bought the stock, then he is clearly innocent. And similarly, if he sold a 1-week ITM option after getting briefed, I think he is clearly guilty (morally, if not legally).
- irjustin 5y agoAh sorry that's my bad on the wrong assumption.