Note that (and I don't have a proper comp for this, but would be interested in one) 58% of wealthy people being first-generation wealth does not mean (or, with

Note that (and I don't have a proper comp for this, but would be interested in one) 58% of wealthy people being first-generation wealth does not mean (or, with the way wealth tends to follow a power-law distribution, even necessarily imply) that 58% of the wealth held by affluent people is held by first-generation wealthy.