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The letter was, they believe, the word of God. If God hadn't meant the loophole to be there then he would have used different words. The loophole is divine.
by AndrewDucker 5y ago
The letter was, they believe, the word of God. If God hadn't meant the loophole to be there then he would have used different words. The loophole is divine.
- krapp 5y ago>If God hadn't meant the loophole to be there then he would have used different words. The loophole is divine. One could just as well state that if God had meant the loophole to be there, he would have mentioned it.
- Kalium 5y agoWhen you believe in an omniscient and omnipotent lawgiver, that line of argument is a little weak.
- BitwiseFool 5y agoIf you assume omniscience and omnipotence as a starting point, then you can justify anything that exists using the same reason, otherwise it wouldn't exist, right? I don't mean to get into a theological or ontological argument, though. It just seems like you can use the foundation to justify anything you want.
- stickfigure 5y ago"If God didn't intend for us to eat animals, then why did he make them out of meat?"
- SketchySeaBeast 5y ago"If God didn't intend for us to eat people, then why did he make them out of meat?"
- krapp 5y agoGod doesn't explicitly forbid cannibalism anywhere in the Bible. We just have to find a way to define humans as ruminants with cloven hooves and it'll all be kosher.
- smegger001 5y agoCRISPR to the rescue
- skissane 5y agoWhether humans are kosher is actually debated in traditional Jewish sources: https://judaism.stackexchange.com/a/101466 https://judaism.stackexchange.com/a/101466 No Rabbi approves of eating humans; it is more a technical debate about whether it is explicitly prohibited by the rules, versus "not strictly prohibited but ewwww... so don't do it"
- krapp 5y agoI mean... If God's so omnipotent why did he need to rest on the seventh day to begin with?
- leephillips 5y agoWhere did you get the idea that the Hebrew God is supposed to be omniscient and omnipotent? I am told that biblical Hebrew does not even have a word for omnipotent.
- skissane 5y agoOrthodox Jews accept Rambam (Maimonides)'s 13 principles of the faith. Rambam taught that all his 13 principles can be derived from the Torah. The 10th principle explicitly says that God is omniscient. The 1st principle "Belief in the existence of the Creator, who is perfect in every manner of existence and is the Primary Cause of all that exists" doesn't explicitly mention omnipotence but rather obviously entails it. (If God is not omnipotent, then God is not "perfect in every manner of existence" since God would not be perfect in power.) https://www.chabad.org/library/article_cdo/aid/332555/jewish/Maimonides-13-Principles-of-Faith.htm https://www.chabad.org/library/article_cdo/aid/332555/jewish... Whether or not the ancient Hebrews believed in divine omniscience and omnipotence is something that can be historically debated. But contemporary Orthodox Jews do. (I'm not Jewish but I hope I've stated the Orthodox Jewish viewpoint accurately.)
- leephillips 5y agoThanks for pointing this out. I encountered the claim recently that the concept of divine omnipotence was invented by Catholic theologians. maybe in the early middle ages, and does not quite exist in Judaism. But you’re pretty convincing.
- wolverine876 5y ago> When you believe in an omniscient and omnipotent lawgiver Is that assumed in Judaism?
- LudwigNagasena 5y agoIf the loophole seems to go directly against intended meaning, can you say it’s there?
- jacobr1 5y agoThe distinction is the belief that there is no intended meaning beyond the literal meaning.