>but there is no way to distinguish people escaping from an oppressive government and people laundering money from criminal sources Is there a difference? Whic

>but there is no way to distinguish people escaping from an oppressive government and people laundering money from criminal sources Is there a difference? Which governments aren't oppressive so their definitions of criminal sources don't count? I think they are exactly the same thing. A meaningful split might instead be funds derived from violent crime vs victimless crime.